Among the many mysteries of America, for me, is just how “stuff” that should belong to “the nation”, or “the people”, or “the government”, or “the citizens”, or whichever non-private entity you might choose to designate, came to fall into the hands of the oligarchs? There are other questions related to that.
1. How did Standard Oil and those who walk in its footsteps come to “own” the oil that they refine and sell to the 300 million members of “We, the people……?”
2. Same as question 1, except as the question relates to the mining industries.
3. It costs about 37 CENTS to refine a gallon of gasoline from crude oil. By the time all the “middle men” get their cut, you and I pay $3.45 PER GALLON. WHY?
4. How did the Department of Water and Power in Los Angeles and similar entities in other places come to “own” the water and the electricity which is delivered and/or produced? The infrastructure for delivery of these services is usually paid for with taxpayer dollars and tax benefits. Shouldn’t the taxpayers own the end product?
5. Why is it that Public Utility Commissions are always largely composed of members of the industries that they are “regulating”? Should that not represent a criminal conflict of interest?
6. Why are increases in “public utility” fees almost always approved?
7. Why are some “Public Utility” CEOs paid FORTY TIMES the annual amount paid each year to the President of the United States? From Forbes Magazine, April 7, 2013:
“FierceEnergy.com tallied it all up for 2011: First Energy Corp.’s Anthony Alexander was paid the most, it says, earning $1.3 million in salary and $18 million in total executive compensation. Dominion’s Thomas Farrell was paid $1.2 million and got $14 million overall. And, Wisconsin Energy Corp.s Gale Klappa was paid $1.2 million and earned $11.3 million in total comp.
8. If the “airwaves belong to the public”, how does the Federal Communications Commission “sell/lease” these airwaves to companies such as NBC, CBS, ABC, FOX, Verizon, Comcast, et.al., at a price that is miniscule when compared to the financial benefits the “purchaser/lessor” gains from the acquisition? The notion that these companies use their investor dollars to develop the end product that they sell to you and me falls by the wayside when you consider that all their “investment” is deducted when they file their tax returns as a “business expense”?
9. Assuming that land owned by the “government”, the “people”, the “nation”, the “citizenry”, and “managed” by the Bureau of Land Management, truly does belong to “the people”, what then is the justification for selling that land in parcels sized so that only financial institutions and the wealthiest 95% of Americans can afford to buy them? The investors then re-parcel the land, build commercial property and houses on it, and then re-sell it to “the people” who owned it a few months ago at a tremendous profit, with no benefit of the larger transaction accruing to “the people”.
10. Why was not the Homestead Act of 1862 perfected, then continued?
And, finally, two more questions? The first question is, why are laws crafted to enable these entities to avoid paying taxes on the income that they generate from these assets that should, rightfully, belong to “the people”? And the second question is, why do “we the people” tolerate such?